Margaret Beaufort is the idol of many Royal history geeks.  But are the constant claims that she was once seen as a potential Queen of England really justifiable?

As I have said in the intro, I think it’s unlikely that anyone ever saw Margaret Beaufort as a potential Queen of England.  But there are four reasons historians sometimes give – and another one I have factored in – as to why I could be wrong.  We’re going to explore the first three, which I am confident don’t stack up, in this post before moving on to the two I have a little more time for in the next.

Hold on tight, here we go:

ARGUMENT 1: The reason Henry VI married her so young to his brother was to provide Lancaster with an heir and even to give his brother the chance of succeeding him (by right of marriage).  Therefore, she must have had a good claim.

Historians tell us that arranging the marriage of Edmund Tudor (his maternal half-brother who had no claim to the throne) to the semi-royal Margaret Beaufort was one of the few acts of Henry VI’s reign that was entirely determined by him rather than his wife or an advisor.  If this is true, it seems unlikely that he had the succession in mind.  He certainly did nothing to dispel the assumption that the Duke of York was next in line.  If this was his plan, then it was a demonstration of strategic thinking that he failed to exhibit at any other stage of his ill-fated career.

Instead it seems far more likely – and in keeping with his character – that he was keen to provide his brother with a wealth and security which had previously alluded him.  Margaret – whatever else she was or wasn’t – was one of the richest heiresses in England and the King wanting to put these resources the way of his brother seems much more in keeping with the naïve but kindly character of the Henry, who had poured affection and blessing on his siblings whenever he was able.

ARGUMENT 2: Edmund Tudor risked sexual relations with the young Margaret because he knew an heir was desperately needed

I’m afraid this argument doesn’t stack up.  True Margaret fell pregnant at 12 – something which was shocking even by the standards of the day and possibly a risk to Tudor’s reputation.  But – however much we might want to excuse him of it – this can’t be because he was desperate to provide an heir and stability for England.   By this point the King and Queen had been able to beget an heir themselves.  A spare might be handy, but disgraceful urgency was hardly needed.

The reasons that he, Edmund Richmond, rushed to impregnate his child bride were far less noble.  Margaret was rich.  If he fathered a child by her – regardless of what happened to the mother – he would gain a life interest in her estates.  It was a brutal act of avaricious.  Perhaps it’s not hard to see where Henry VII inherited his love of money…

ARGUMENT 3: Henry VII based his claim through his mother, so it must have been credible

I think there’s something in this argument, but we have to be careful.  Richard III had become unpopular.  There wasn’t many people left to challenge him.  Because the line of Henry IV and the male-line Beauforts had been eliminated at the Battle of Tewksbury, Henry of Richmond was the ‘closest thing Lancaster had to Royalty.’  In and of itself it wasn’t much of a claim, but with a pledge to marry Elizabeth of York, people started to flock to him.   Might, primarily, made right.

When examined closely, none of the above really point to Margaret having much of a claim to the throne.  But join us in part 3 for a couple of slightly stronger arguments.

Well geeks…over to you.  Have I misjudged these arguments?  Was Margaret given in marriage because of her Royal blood?  Have I devalued Henry VII’s claim?  Or am I spot on…?